Modeling Test
I'm working on a modeling test and it says this: Financing fees of $3 million paid at close. Additional transaction fees and expenses of $2 million also paid at close. All fees will be funded by additional draw on the revolver at close. There is also the assumption that the revolver is 1.0x EBITDA (LIBOR + 400bps). LTM EBITDA is $23M.
Does this mean the revolver limit is 1.0x EBITDA and the beginning balance is $5m? Would the beginning balance be $23M?
Also - separately, if it is a cash free, debt free deal - would the Equity Value in the uses side just be the LTM EBITDA x the Entry Multiple??
Thanks!!
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